As I continue through a trek in John's Gospel, Chapter two jumps off the page to me this morning.  It's a familiar story, one that many college students use to justify obscene parties calling, "Well Jesus brought the booze in John 2?" 

Oh how long will we stoop to illiterate arguments to justify our desire to be debaucherous?

Sorry, soap box there.

In any event, the stage is set.  The wedding feast is on.  The guests are having a good time, when all of the sudden the host notices the wine is about to run out. 

Now to be perfectly honest, you might be tempted to think, "Well, who cares.  Wine's gone!  Party's over!"  But in all reality, if the host of a wedding failed to provide the necessary feast for all his members, the Jewish tradition could bring legal charges to his family.

So this is a big deal.

Mary goes to Jesus and says,"they have no wine."  and Jesus said to her, "Woman, what does this have to do with me?  My hour has not yet come."  (v.3-4)

And Jesus went to the six stone jars used for the Jewish rights of purification and ordered the servants to fill the jars with water.  They filled up the jars, which were thought to have held up to 30 gallons, and commanded them to draw out and take some. 

The Master of the feast caught wind of what was going down and went to the bridegroom, "Everyone serves the good wine first and when people have drunk freely, then the poor wine.  But you have kept the good wine until now." (v.9-10)

So as I'm reading this account of Jesus' first miracle in the gospel of John, several questions come to mind.

Why did He perform this, when he clearly told his mom it wasn't his time?
Why did He choose this miracle as the first?
Is there any significance in the fact that he took the old Jewish Jars used for purification for the containers?

And I'm beginning to come up with some ideas. 

But..as I set out to do, this site is a "WE" site, so let's put our heads together, get those commentaries smokin, and see if there's a common thread for WHY Jesus did this.

I know toward the end of the story John records, "This is the first of his signs, Jesus did at Cana in Galilee, and manifested his glory.  And his disciples believed him." (v. 11)

So, what say you my budding theologians?

1 Comment

  1. I am kind of thinking that he used the purification containers as symbolism. Jesus could not perform or make anything unclean. That would be against the nature of God. So I think it was symbolic of how God doesn’t always use the traditional way to carry out his purposes and plan.

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